I'm reading the biography of Francis Ford Apocalypse, and his movie, "Peggy Sue got married", was apparently a huge success. But, according to Wiki, it cost $18 million to make and had a domestic gross of only $41 million. If the theatres took half, and the distributor took half of the remaining half - ie, a quarter of the gross - that would leave only $10 million for the producer and investor. IOW, that would have been a big loss.
By the same token, "Apocalypse Now" cost $31 million to make, but apparently made a worldwide gross of $150 million. After splitting the take between the theatres and the distributors, and, considering bank interest, there wouldn't have been much left. So, again, why is it considered a success????
I'm baffled - is there an accountant who can explain this to me?
By the same token, "Apocalypse Now" cost $31 million to make, but apparently made a worldwide gross of $150 million. After splitting the take between the theatres and the distributors, and, considering bank interest, there wouldn't have been much left. So, again, why is it considered a success????
I'm baffled - is there an accountant who can explain this to me?