Hi
I'm in a conundrum and research has pulled up nothing but dead ends! Any help is great appreciated.
I am looking at adapting a piece of work by an English novelist who has been dead more than 100 years. I know that after a writer is dead after 70 years his work goes into the public domain. So that would mean it's okay to adapt without paying or seeking copyright permission. So far so good...
Here is where I'm unsure
The material I wish to adapt was done so 30 years ago into a TV movie. Does that mean the company took up copyright of the material or that they just own that adaptation (understandably) and that I'm free - like anyone else - to adapt the original material because that itself remains in the public domain.
Basically - is a book is out of copyright but someone makes a film of it do they no hold ownership of film adaptions of said material or is it still free to adapt to whomever wishes to do so
Many thanks in advance
I'm in a conundrum and research has pulled up nothing but dead ends! Any help is great appreciated.
I am looking at adapting a piece of work by an English novelist who has been dead more than 100 years. I know that after a writer is dead after 70 years his work goes into the public domain. So that would mean it's okay to adapt without paying or seeking copyright permission. So far so good...
Here is where I'm unsure
The material I wish to adapt was done so 30 years ago into a TV movie. Does that mean the company took up copyright of the material or that they just own that adaptation (understandably) and that I'm free - like anyone else - to adapt the original material because that itself remains in the public domain.
Basically - is a book is out of copyright but someone makes a film of it do they no hold ownership of film adaptions of said material or is it still free to adapt to whomever wishes to do so
Many thanks in advance
